Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight - SmartCockpit - Airline training guides, Aviation, Operations, Safety

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

Yes, by setting a higher speed target.

No, because the A THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC 3.

No action is needed as recovery is automatic.

Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

The SPEED target is selected and the flight crew did not enter a speed target in the PERF CLB page, or a speed-Mach target in the PERF DES page.

The SPEED target, as selected, is invalid or the flight crew did not enter any speed target in the PERF CLB page.

The speed target is not selected.

Correct! Wrong!

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

Pressing the metric altitudes pb changes the FCU (only) indication to meters.

Pressing the metric altitude pb changes the FCU and the PFD display to meters.

The metric altitude display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.

The metric altitude display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

40 degrees.

45 degrees.

67 degrees.

58 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

A THR in white means that A THR is:

Disconnected.

Active.

Armed.

Correct! Wrong!

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

Three.

Four.

Two.

One.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

Altitude box flashes.

Altitude box turns amber.

Altitude numbers turn amber.

Altitude numbers turn red.

Correct! Wrong!

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

10ft, 40ft.

20ft, 10ft.

10ft, 20ft.

10ft, 30ft.

Correct! Wrong!

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

The current display setting at the time of the failure.

ARC 80 NM.

ARC 160 NM.

ROSE NAV 80 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.

Correct! Wrong!

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)

Pitch attitude.

Alpha floor.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 6.9 degrees.

Plus or minus 9.9 degrees.

Plus or minus 4 degrees.

Plus or minus 4.9 degrees

Correct! Wrong!

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

Both statements are correct.

For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.

When one or more IRs are operating on aircraft battery power.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

100 kt.

0 kt.

VLS.

Alpha Prot.

Correct! Wrong!

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

Only when a LOC signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, AND initial climb. The RWY guidance law aims to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline during the takeoff run. When the aircraft is airborne, the RWY guidance law aims to maintain the sideslip indicator centered. To follow the guidance, the FD displays the conventional guidance bar.

During the takeoff phase:

SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference.

SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.

SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

Correct! Wrong!

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

HDG Indication.

The runway of the selected approach in the MCDU.

The active approach.

Active Nav Aids.

Correct! Wrong!

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

600 fpm.

800 fpm.

500 fpm.

1000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

Alpha Floor Protection is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 feet RA on the approach to landing.

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

V2 is available, the flaps and slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 is available, the flaps are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 has been inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 30 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

The best combination of rate of climb and desired airspeed.

The desired rate of climb.

The desired airspeed.

The desired climb speed.

Correct! Wrong!

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

Yes.

No.

Correct! Wrong!

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

RWY.

HDG.

NAV.

NAV or TRK.

Correct! Wrong!

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

ENG THR matches the current THR LVR position at the point of disconnect.

THR LOCK until the flight crew sets desired manual thrust.

Nothing.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

VAPP.

V alpha Prot.

V alpha MAX.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

10 seconds.

30 seconds.

60 seconds.

45 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 2 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 1 and ND 1.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI. ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin.

All statements are correct.

VLS will change with wing configuration change.

With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase.

Correct! Wrong!

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

FMGC position and IR position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC 1 and 2 position difference exceeds limits.

Correct! Wrong!

If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), the flight crew should compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

The autothrust only.

The flight directors and autothrust.

The flight directors, autothrust and autopilots.

The flight directors only.

Correct! Wrong!

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function is active when the speed is managed and the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

Both autopilot and autothrust disconnect.

THR LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

CLB thrust is commanded and the autothrust disconnects.

TOGA LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

At FMGC system power up.

When DC power is connected.

At first engine start.

When AC power is connected.

Correct! Wrong!

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

AD and IR information will be disconnected.

AD information will be disconnected.

IR information will be disconnected.

The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

PROG page.

FUEL PRED page.

TAKE OFF PERF page.

INIT A page.

Correct! Wrong!

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

When LAND mode engages.

At all times.

When the Approach Phase is activated.

When LOC and GS modes are armed.

Correct! Wrong!

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

QNH.

BARO.

MAG WIND.

TEMP.

Correct! Wrong!

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands

AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.

Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

+20 degrees and -15 degrees.

+28 degrees and -10 degrees.

+25 degrees and -17 degrees.

+25 degrees and -13 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

LEVER CLB appears on the PFD reminding the pilots of an incorrect THR LVR position.

AP Disconnects.

ATHR Disconnects.

ATHR demands IDLE Thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Correct! Wrong!

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

Flight plan constraints.

Cost Index constraints.

MCT - TOGA.

The thrust setting associated with the position of the thrust lever.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

At or above 400ft AGL.

At or above 100ft AGL and after 5 seconds.

At or above 150ft AGL.

At or above 240ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

450 kt.

399 kt.

500 kt.

499 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

When the SLATS are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

AP disconnects.

TOGA FLEX then becomes the upper band of the ATHR speed range

Autothrottle returns to an ARMED state, with TOGA FLEX shown in a whitebox.

ATHR disconnects.

Correct! Wrong!

How can be defined a GA TRK?

It guides the aircraft along a TRK set in the FCU at go-around.

Entirely the same as TRK, although only displays on a go-around.

It guides the aircraft along the current track at go-around initiation.

It guides the aircraft along a wind adjusted HDG for a given RWY TRK on go-around.

Correct! Wrong!

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

VLS.

VLS + 5 kt.

VLS + 10 kt.

VLS + 8 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

MCT / TOGA.

The thrust setting associated with the position of THR LVR.

Cost Index constraints.

The THR setting in use, i.e. TOGA will equal TOGA thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

THR CLB.

THR LK.

SPEED.

MAN TOGA.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

There is a pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up: 18 degrees (A319 and A320) – 15 degrees (A321) of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 degrees maximum in case of windshear).

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

160 ft.

250 ft.

500 ft.

100 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

Present position needs to be reentered.

Correct! Wrong!

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.

Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

Correct! Wrong!

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

5 seconds.

7 seconds.

10 seconds.

12 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

Below 1300AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1300AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

The speed target must be reduced to achieve the flight profile.

The thrust must be reduced to achieve a proper deceleration before a speed constraint.

The thrust is not reduced when passing the Top of Descent, and the aircraft is above the flight profile.

Correct! Wrong!

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

7 seconds

Permanently.

5 seconds.

10 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

When a mode reversion occurs or loss of ILS data.

When a mode reversion occurs or alpha floor engages.

Alpha floor engages.

When a mode reversion occurs.

Correct! Wrong!

In HDG TRK mode, a flight plan waypoint is sequenced if the waypoint is behind the aircraft and the aircraft is less than 7 NM from it, if the angle between the current aircraft track and the track of the leg is less than 90 degrees, and if the aircraft is flying a discontinuity towards a waypoint. This waypoint is sequenced when the aircraft is less than _____ from it.

2.5 NM.

7 NM.

5 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

The same conditions apply in NAV mode, except that no distance to the waypoint is taken into account.

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

Correct! Wrong!

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

The OFF light will illuminate, and air data output will disconnect.

All statements are correct.

Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.

The respective ADIRU will become de-energized.

Correct! Wrong!

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

CAT 3 SINGLE, CAT2 and CAT1.

CAT 2 and CAT 1.

CAT 3 SINGLE and CAT2.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

On the ground.

On the ground and below 50 ft RA.

Below 30 ft RA.

On the ground, or below 30 ft RA.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrust is a function of the:

FMGC (Flight Management Guidance Control).

ELACs (ELevator Aileron Computers).

SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computers).

FACs (Flight Augmentation Computers).

Correct! Wrong!

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop

1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.

Correct! Wrong!

Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs: if FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD-

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+15 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+5 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It provides instructions to the flight director computers.

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+10 (2 engines) or V2+15 maximum (1 engine).

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the SRS guidance law. In SRS mode, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt in normal engine configuration. When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA (not in white).

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

A white box is displayed for 10 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 15 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and altitude.

Heading, altitude, and vertical speed.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

Above 160 ft AGL.

Above 250 ft AGL.

Above 300 ft AGL.

Above 100 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

40 degrees.

37 degrees.

25 degrees.

33 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

The PFD and standby altimeters

The PFD altimeters only.

None of the baro references.

The standby altimeter only.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

A DMC failure.

No power.

The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped out.

An AC power failure.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight along with any ATHR associated protections.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight.

ATHR disconnects.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does NOT automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

VS mode engages 5 seconds after lift-off.

SRS will still engage when FLEX/TOGA is selected.

No FMA will display in column 2.

The aircraft will target the speed achieved at lift off.

Correct! Wrong!

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

1 ADC (Air data Computer) failure.

2 RA (Radio Altimeters) failures.

2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer) failures.

2 IRS or ADC (Air Data Computer) failures.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

Aircraft will slow to the green dot speed.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug matches to the new target.

LS automatically switches on should you be conducting an ILS approach.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug drops to Vapp.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 8000 fpm.

Plus or minus 5000 fpm.

Plus or minus 7000 fpm.

Plus or minus 6000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Nothing.

Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Correct! Wrong!

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

Approximately 10 minutes.

Approximately 6 minutes.

Approximately 13 minutes.

Approximately 3 minutes.

Correct! Wrong!

Fast alignment is used to refine a position when time is limited. A fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds.

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.

Both statements are correct.

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.

Correct! Wrong!

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

Bearing only for VOR 1.

Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

Correct! Wrong!

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

The flight controls revert to direct law.

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

250 ft.

500 ft.

160 ft.

100 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.

The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

Nothing.

Reverts to Selected Mode (Blue).

All bugs are lost.

Remains in Managed Mode (Magenta) in case managed mode is engaged again.

Correct! Wrong!

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

Aircraft cannot meet the requirements of that mode.

Recently changed mode.

Mode reversion.

Armed mode.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

Hold will automatically cancel overflying the fix.

Activate the HOLD EXIT prompt.

Using the CLR EXIT prompt.

Activate the IMM EXIT prompt.

Correct! Wrong!

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

LOC and G/S Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC and G/S Arm.

GS Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC Arm.

Correct! Wrong!

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

Three main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, and low energy aural alert function.

Four main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, low energy aural alert function and windshear detection function.

Two main functions - Yaw function and flight envelope function.

Correct! Wrong!

If a failure is detected on any channel of FAC1, FAC2 takes over the corresponding channel.

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

VS.

CLB.

ALT.

OPN CLB.

Correct! Wrong!

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

200 ft AGL.

250 ft AGL.

300 ft AGL.

180 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

Check Data Base Date.

Check Effective Date.

Check Data Base Cycle.

Check Changeover date.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

It flashes green.

It turns amber.

It turns green.

It flashes amber.

Correct! Wrong!

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

As soon as the flight directors are engaged.

On first engine start.

When the takeoff config switch is pressed.

When FLEX or TOGA is selected.

Correct! Wrong!

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

In Normal Law and alternate laws where ATHR is operative.

Always.

In Normal law & Alternative laws only.

In Normal Law with operating autothrust.

Correct! Wrong!

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.

VAPP+7 and its upper limit is VFE-5 of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-3 in CONF FULL.

VAPP+ 5 kt and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration.

Correct! Wrong!

Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

Alignment has been completed.

Air data output has been disconnected.

The respective IR is operating normally.

Correct! Wrong!

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

Airbus A320 – Automatic Flight

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

A THR in white means that A THR is:

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

During the takeoff phase:

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

How can be defined a GA TRK?

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

The autothrust is a function of the:

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.