Airbus A220 - Automatic Flight

During an Autoland, ROLLOUT mode starts:

Immediately on touchdown.

2 seconds after Weight-On-Wheels (WOW).

When ground spoiler extended.

Correct! Wrong!

When the Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) is automatically activated, the 'EMERGENCY DESCENT' warning message is displayed on the EICAS page. If it is manually activated, the 'EMERGENCY DESCENT' caution message is displayed on the EICAS page.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The FD/AT can be manually changed with the:

XFR switch on the Flight Control Panel (FCP) or the ALTN switch on the Reversion Switch Panel (RSP).

ALTN switch on the Reversion Switch Panel (RSP), which is on the center pedestal.

XFR switch on the Flight Control Panel (FCP).

Correct! Wrong!

Heading synchronization is automatic in any of the conditions that follow:

In TO lateral mode and the aircraft is on the ground,

In TO lateral mode and the aircraft is on the ground or the GA mode is active, or in basic mode.

In TO lateral mode and the aircraft is in flight or the GA mode is active.

Correct! Wrong!

The APPR (approach) mode provides for the automatic intercept, capture, and tracking of the front course localizer and glideslope. When the ILS approach is selected in the FMS and the aircraft is approximately _____ from the airport, the localizer frequency is automatically tuned, the LOC preview mode is enabled, and the course indicator sets to the localizer course.

20 NM.

25 NM.

30 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

When above _____, selection of the TO/GA switches can also activate the FCP again.

200 feet AGL

50 ft AGL

100 ft AGL

Correct! Wrong!

The AP engages when the AP switch on the FCP is pushed, and when at least the bank angle is within plus or minus:

30 degrees.

45 degrees.

35 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

On the coupled PFD, if the Autopilot (AP) is engaged:

Either FD switch can be selected to control the FD cue.

Either FD switch can be selected in normal and degraded modes.

Selection of the FD switch has no effect.

Correct! Wrong!

If the approach mode degrades from APPR 2 to APPR 1 and the aircraft is above _____, a NO APPR 2 message flashes in amber for 5 seconds, followed by a steady green APPR 1 message.

300 ft RA.

200 ft RA.

500 ft RA.

Correct! Wrong!

The preview function is available for localizer and ILS approaches. When the aircraft is within a specific distance from the station and the FMS has auto-tuned the localizer frequency, the localizer approach course, frequency, and course pointer are displayed in blue on the HSI.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The localizer frequency, the localizer approach course, frequency, and course pointer are displayed in cyan on the HSI.

The AP disconnect switch on the FCP is disabled during autoland. Pilots must use the A/P DISC on the sidestick.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The autopilot can be disengaged manually when:

The rudder pedals are moved during autoland ground roll.

The tiller is moved during autoland ground roll.

The tiller or rudder pedals are moved during autoland ground roll.

Correct! Wrong!

The tiller or rudder pedals are moved (more than 0.8 inches) during autoland ground roll.

If the approach mode degrades (down-modes) from LAND 3 to LAND 2 above 200 feet AGL:

An amber NO LAND 3 message flashes for 5 seconds, and is followed by a steady amber LAND 2 message.

An amber NO LAND 3 message flashes for 5 seconds, and is followed by a steady green LAND 2 message.

An amber NO LAND 3 is displayed with a cross. A steady white LAND 2 message is also displayed.

Correct! Wrong!

If an HUD is installed, indications are the same as on the PFD. A triple-click aural alert sounds when a degradation occurs.

When activated, the Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) initiates a high-speed autopilot-controlled descent to _____ using the FLC and the HDG modes.

25000 ft.

15000 ft.

The MORA (as available in the FMS data module).

Correct! Wrong!

When the preselected altitude of 15000 feet is reached, the AP and AT remain engaged, and the altitude and the heading are maintained. The speed is automatically set to 250 knots.

If the Primary Flight Control Computer (PFCC) cannot maintain the heading, or when below_____, the roll mode replaces the heading mode (HDG). The bank angle is then maintained and a green ROLL message is displayed on the FMA.

200 feet RA.

500 feet RA.

400 feet RA.

Correct! Wrong!

During One Engine Inoperative (OEI) guidance, the beta target indicator replaces the slip indicator. It has the same shape, but the color of the beta target is _____.

Magenta.

Blue.

Amber.

Correct! Wrong!

Heading, airspeed, altitude preselect, and the transponder code cannot be changed during Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) descent.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Heading, airspeed, altitude preselect, and the transponder code can be changed during EDM descent.

In VALT mode, the FMS provides the selected altitude to maintain. VALT mode engages automatically when the selected altitude is reached. The mode also engages when VNAV is activated with the VNAV switch and the aircraft is within _____ of the selected altitude.

200 feet.

300 feet.

250 feet.

Correct! Wrong!

To differentiate between a selected and a VNAV vertical mode, the letter 'V' is added to the navigation mode message on the FMA. For example, the altitude hold mode is displayed as 'ALT' when manually selected, and displayed as 'VALT' when managed by the VNAV.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Only one FD system (one channel) inside the DCU Model Cabinet (DMC) is active at a time, while the other is on standby. In normal operation, automatic selection of the active DMC is based on odd and even days.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

When a FD cue is removed from the PFD, a _____ FD OFF message is displayed on the PFD.

White.

Blue.

Amber.

Correct! Wrong!

Underspeed (USPD) protection - When the current speed is in the red and black low speed marker:

The airspeed value flashes in red and a continuous 'SPEED-SPEED' aural warning sounds.

The airspeed value is displayed in red and a continuous 'SPEED' aural warning sounds.

A continuous 'SPEED' aural warning sounds.

Correct! Wrong!

The Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) is automatically activated if the cabin altitude exceeds _____ and the aircraft is above 25000 feet. When the aircraft altitude is above 25000 feet, the EDM can be manually activated with the EDM guarded switch on the FCP.

14000 ft.

10000 ft.

14500 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA uses the color conventions that follow to display the FD modes and status. Red color is for:

AP disconnect only.

Detected but invalid modes.

All invalid modes.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrust (AT) operates in the takeoff hold mode (HOLD) to maintain takeoff thrust from:

100 knots to 1000 ft AGL.

60 knots to 400 feet AGL.

80 knots to 400 feet AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

During takeoff, AT manual engagement is disabled from 60 KIAS to 400 feet AGL.

During operation in VFPA mode, an airspeed protection function commands an aircraft pitch change if the airspeed is beyond VMO/MMO.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

During operation in VFPA mode, an airspeed protection function commands an aircraft pitch change if the airspeed approaches VMO/MMO.

When the speed trend vector extends beyond VMAX for a minimum of 6 seconds, the airspeed value is displayed in amber and a continuous 'OVERSPEED' aural warning sounds.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

When the speed trend vector extends beyond VMAX, the airspeed value is displayed in amber and a single 'OVERSPEED' aural warning sounds.

During an Autoland, FLARE mode is activated, the ROLLOUT mode is armed and the landing flare starts:

Below 20 ft AGL.

Below 50 ft AGL.

Below 65 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

RETARD mode is activated and the throttles are reduced to flight idle below 20 ft AGL.

When VGP mode is active:

The altitude alert function is inhibited.

The altitude alert function and automatic arming of VALTS are both inhibited.

The automatic arming of VALTS is inhibited.

Correct! Wrong!

When overspeed is active:

The autopilot and autothrottle are not automatically engaged.

The autothrottle is automatically engaged but the autopilot is not.

The autopilot is automatically engaged but the autothrottle is not.

Correct! Wrong!

The Autopilot (AP) system is only available in Fly-By-Wire (FBW) normal mode. The monitor function of the system protects it from erroneous inputs. The AP system limiting function protects the aircraft flight envelope by limiting the FD commands. The roll mode limits the bank to _____ left or right.

30 degrees.

40 degrees.

38 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

In the FPA mode, the aircraft pitch changes to maintain the selected flight path angle. The selected FPA value is displayed to the right of the FPA message on the FMA, and is changed when the VS/FPA wheel is turned (0.1 degree for each detent) toward DN to decrease the FPA, and toward UP to increase the FPA. The path angle selection is limited to _ and the pitch angle commands are limited to _.

Plus or minus 7.9 degrees - Plus or minus 10 degrees.

Plus or minus 9.9 degrees - Plus or minus 15 degrees.

Plus or minus 3.5 degrees - Plus or minus 10 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

Reversion Switch Panel (RSP) – FD/AT ALTN switch - Two FD/AT computers are available for flight guidance and they are both active after both engines have been started.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

Two FD/AT computers are available for flight guidance but only one is active at a time. They alternate automatically every day, or if there is a failure of the active dual channel.

To follow the FD commands, the aircraft must be maneuvered, either manually or by the Autopilot (AP), so that the FPV:

Coincides with the flight director cue.

Is over the flight director cue.

Is below the flight director cue.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrust (AT) system automatically manages the engine thrust. During the complete flight profile, servomotors in the Throttle Quadrant Assembly (TQA) automatically position the thrust levers. The AT includes engine synchronization. It is not available during single-engine operation.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The AP system is engaged when the AP switch on the FCP is selected. It also engages when the Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) is activated (manually or automatically). AP system status is annunciated on the FMA.

True.

False

Correct! Wrong!

The autopilot can be disengaged manually when:

The TOGA switch is pressed for more than 2 seconds while on the ground.

The TOGA switch is pressed.

The TOGA switch is pressed for more than 2 seconds while on the ground, except when autoland ROLLOUT is active.

Correct! Wrong!

The half bank mode limits the maximum bank angle used by the FD to 12.5 degrees (from 30 degrees). It is automatically activated in NAV and HDG lateral modes when the aircraft climbs through:

25 000 ft.

29 500 ft.

31 500 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

The half bank mode can be manually activated below 31500 feet when the 1/2 BANK switch on the FCP is pushed. It is available in HDG mode only.

During the (V) ALTS CAP mode, the flight guidance/autopilot may not maintain the selected airspeed. Crew intervention may be required to maintain the selected airspeed.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

VNAV cross track deviation - During enroute, terminal, or approach operations, when a cross track error exceeds_____ the NO VPATH-XKE message is displayed on the HSI, and a flashing amber VPATH is displayed on the FMA.

5 NM.

7 NM.

10 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

Pressing the XFR switch:

Deletes all the FD modes.

Resets all the FD modes to basic.

Makes active the FD modes in a degraded mode.

Correct! Wrong!

When VALTS is active, any change in the altimeter setting:

Has no effect on the aircraft trajectory.

Has no effect on the aircraft trajectory and the VALTV mode arms is displayed in white on the FMA.

Causes the aircraft to return to the selected attitude.

Correct! Wrong!

When it reaches the preselected altitude, the aircraft levels off, and VALTS is displayed in green on the FMA. The aircraft is never commanded to climb or descend through the preselected altitude.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The Autopilot (AP) does not include an automatic rudder trim function.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

If this approach mode degradation occurs when the aircraft is at or below 250 feet RA, the NO APPR 2 message flashes amber for 5 seconds, followed by a steady green APPR 1 message.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

If this approach mode degradation occurs when the aircraft is at or below 200 feet RA, the NO APPR 2 message flashes red for 5 seconds, followed by a steady green APPR 1 message.

VNAV track angle error - During enroute, terminal, or approach operations, when a track angle error exceeds _____, the NO VPATH−TKE message is displayed on the HSI, and a flashing amber VPATH is displayed on the FMA.

75 degrees.

95 degrees.

90 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

VPATH will re-arm when the track error is less than 75 degrees.

The Flight Director (FD) sends pitch and roll commands to the AP system to control the primary flight control surfaces, and displays information on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) for the Flight Path Vector (FPV).

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The FD and the AT systems are paired together. Only one FD/AT combination is active at a time.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

After GS is captured and the aircraft is below _____, the flight guidance is transferred to the PFCC for precision ILS approach capability. APPR LOC is displayed in green on the FMA.

2000 ft RA.

1500 ft RA.

2500 ft RA.

Correct! Wrong!

With the autopilot off during One Engine Inoperative (OEI), the pilot uses rudder inputs to center the beta target, and uses roll commands to maintain the heading. With the autopilot engaged the pilot:

Centers the beta target with roll input.

Centers the beta target with rudder inputs, and the autopilot maintains the heading.

Monitors the aircraft path.

Correct! Wrong!

Airbus A220 - Automatic Flight

Quiz

Airbus A220 - Automatic Flight

During an Autoland, ROLLOUT mode starts:

When the Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) is automatically activated, the 'EMERGENCY DESCENT' warning message is displayed on the EICAS page. If it is manually activated, the 'EMERGENCY DESCENT' caution message is displayed on the EICAS page.

The FD/AT can be manually changed with the:

Heading synchronization is automatic in any of the conditions that follow:

When above _____, selection of the TO/GA switches can also activate the FCP again.

The AP engages when the AP switch on the FCP is pushed, and when at least the bank angle is within plus or minus:

On the coupled PFD, if the Autopilot (AP) is engaged:

If the approach mode degrades from APPR 2 to APPR 1 and the aircraft is above _____, a NO APPR 2 message flashes in amber for 5 seconds, followed by a steady green APPR 1 message.

The preview function is available for localizer and ILS approaches. When the aircraft is within a specific distance from the station and the FMS has auto-tuned the localizer frequency, the localizer approach course, frequency, and course pointer are displayed in blue on the HSI.

The AP disconnect switch on the FCP is disabled during autoland. Pilots must use the A/P DISC on the sidestick.

The autopilot can be disengaged manually when:

If the approach mode degrades (down-modes) from LAND 3 to LAND 2 above 200 feet AGL:

When activated, the Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) initiates a high-speed autopilot-controlled descent to _____ using the FLC and the HDG modes.

If the Primary Flight Control Computer (PFCC) cannot maintain the heading, or when below_____, the roll mode replaces the heading mode (HDG). The bank angle is then maintained and a green ROLL message is displayed on the FMA.

During One Engine Inoperative (OEI) guidance, the beta target indicator replaces the slip indicator. It has the same shape, but the color of the beta target is _____.

Heading, airspeed, altitude preselect, and the transponder code cannot be changed during Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) descent.

In VALT mode, the FMS provides the selected altitude to maintain. VALT mode engages automatically when the selected altitude is reached. The mode also engages when VNAV is activated with the VNAV switch and the aircraft is within _____ of the selected altitude.

To differentiate between a selected and a VNAV vertical mode, the letter 'V' is added to the navigation mode message on the FMA. For example, the altitude hold mode is displayed as 'ALT' when manually selected, and displayed as 'VALT' when managed by the VNAV.

Only one FD system (one channel) inside the DCU Model Cabinet (DMC) is active at a time, while the other is on standby. In normal operation, automatic selection of the active DMC is based on odd and even days.

When a FD cue is removed from the PFD, a _____ FD OFF message is displayed on the PFD.

Underspeed (USPD) protection - When the current speed is in the red and black low speed marker:

The Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) is automatically activated if the cabin altitude exceeds _____ and the aircraft is above 25000 feet. When the aircraft altitude is above 25000 feet, the EDM can be manually activated with the EDM guarded switch on the FCP.

The FMA uses the color conventions that follow to display the FD modes and status. Red color is for:

The autothrust (AT) operates in the takeoff hold mode (HOLD) to maintain takeoff thrust from:

During operation in VFPA mode, an airspeed protection function commands an aircraft pitch change if the airspeed is beyond VMO/MMO.

When the speed trend vector extends beyond VMAX for a minimum of 6 seconds, the airspeed value is displayed in amber and a continuous 'OVERSPEED' aural warning sounds.

During an Autoland, FLARE mode is activated, the ROLLOUT mode is armed and the landing flare starts:

When VGP mode is active:

When overspeed is active:

Reversion Switch Panel (RSP) – FD/AT ALTN switch - Two FD/AT computers are available for flight guidance and they are both active after both engines have been started.

To follow the FD commands, the aircraft must be maneuvered, either manually or by the Autopilot (AP), so that the FPV:

The autothrust (AT) system automatically manages the engine thrust. During the complete flight profile, servomotors in the Throttle Quadrant Assembly (TQA) automatically position the thrust levers. The AT includes engine synchronization. It is not available during single-engine operation.

The AP system is engaged when the AP switch on the FCP is selected. It also engages when the Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) is activated (manually or automatically). AP system status is annunciated on the FMA.

The autopilot can be disengaged manually when:

The half bank mode limits the maximum bank angle used by the FD to 12.5 degrees (from 30 degrees). It is automatically activated in NAV and HDG lateral modes when the aircraft climbs through:

During the (V) ALTS CAP mode, the flight guidance/autopilot may not maintain the selected airspeed. Crew intervention may be required to maintain the selected airspeed.

VNAV cross track deviation - During enroute, terminal, or approach operations, when a cross track error exceeds_____ the NO VPATH-XKE message is displayed on the HSI, and a flashing amber VPATH is displayed on the FMA.

Pressing the XFR switch:

When VALTS is active, any change in the altimeter setting:

When it reaches the preselected altitude, the aircraft levels off, and VALTS is displayed in green on the FMA. The aircraft is never commanded to climb or descend through the preselected altitude.

The Autopilot (AP) does not include an automatic rudder trim function.

If this approach mode degradation occurs when the aircraft is at or below 250 feet RA, the NO APPR 2 message flashes amber for 5 seconds, followed by a steady green APPR 1 message.

VNAV track angle error - During enroute, terminal, or approach operations, when a track angle error exceeds _____, the NO VPATH−TKE message is displayed on the HSI, and a flashing amber VPATH is displayed on the FMA.

The Flight Director (FD) sends pitch and roll commands to the AP system to control the primary flight control surfaces, and displays information on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) for the Flight Path Vector (FPV).

The FD and the AT systems are paired together. Only one FD/AT combination is active at a time.

After GS is captured and the aircraft is below _____, the flight guidance is transferred to the PFCC for precision ILS approach capability. APPR LOC is displayed in green on the FMA.

With the autopilot off during One Engine Inoperative (OEI), the pilot uses rudder inputs to center the beta target, and uses roll commands to maintain the heading. With the autopilot engaged the pilot: