Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

The metric altitude display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.

The metric altitude display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.

Pressing the metric altitude pb changes the FCU and the PFD display to meters.

Pressing the metric altitudes pb changes the FCU (only) indication to meters.

Correct! Wrong!

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

When the SLATS are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

Approximately 10 minutes.

Approximately 13 minutes.

Approximately 6 minutes.

Approximately 3 minutes.

Correct! Wrong!

Fast alignment is used to refine a position when time is limited. A fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds.

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

V2 is available, the flaps are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 is available, the flaps and slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 has been inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 30 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

THR LK.

THR CLB.

MAN TOGA.

SPEED.

Correct! Wrong!

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Alpha Floor Protection is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 feet RA on the approach to landing.

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

Above 100 ft AGL.

Above 300 ft AGL.

Above 250 ft AGL.

Above 160 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

One.

Three.

Four.

Two.

Correct! Wrong!

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

Present position needs to be reentered.

Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

Correct! Wrong!

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

When the Approach Phase is activated.

When LOC and GS modes are armed.

When LAND mode engages.

At all times.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrust is a function of the:

FACs (Flight Augmentation Computers).

ELACs (ELevator Aileron Computers).

FMGC (Flight Management Guidance Control).

SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computers).

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does NOT automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

Correct! Wrong!

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

The flight directors, autothrust and autopilots.

The autothrust only.

The flight directors and autothrust.

The flight directors only.

Correct! Wrong!

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

A white box is displayed for 10 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 15 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

Nothing.

Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

VLS + 8 kt.

VLS + 10 kt.

VLS.

VLS + 5 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

All bugs are lost.

Nothing.

Remains in Managed Mode (Magenta) in case managed mode is engaged again.

Reverts to Selected Mode (Blue).

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

Air data output has been disconnected.

Alignment has been completed.

The respective IR is operating normally.

Correct! Wrong!

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

10ft, 40ft.

10ft, 30ft.

20ft, 10ft.

10ft, 20ft.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

500 kt.

450 kt.

399 kt.

499 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

Check Data Base Cycle.

Check Effective Date.

Check Data Base Date.

Check Changeover date.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

At first engine start.

At FMGC system power up.

When DC power is connected.

When AC power is connected.

Correct! Wrong!

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

The flight controls revert to direct law.

The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

Correct! Wrong!

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

AD information will be disconnected.

IR information will be disconnected.

The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

AD and IR information will be disconnected.

Correct! Wrong!

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

THR LOCK until the flight crew sets desired manual thrust.

ENG THR matches the current THR LVR position at the point of disconnect.

Nothing.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

The speed target must be reduced to achieve the flight profile.

The thrust is not reduced when passing the Top of Descent, and the aircraft is above the flight profile.

The thrust must be reduced to achieve a proper deceleration before a speed constraint.

Correct! Wrong!

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

10 seconds.

5 seconds.

7 seconds.

12 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.

The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

0 kt.

Alpha Prot.

100 kt.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

It turns amber.

It flashes green.

It flashes amber.

It turns green.

Correct! Wrong!

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

Recently changed mode.

Armed mode.

Aircraft cannot meet the requirements of that mode.

Mode reversion.

Correct! Wrong!

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

The aircraft will target the speed achieved at lift off.

No FMA will display in column 2.

SRS will still engage when FLEX/TOGA is selected.

VS mode engages 5 seconds after lift-off.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

There is a pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up: 18 degrees (A319 and A320) – 15 degrees (A321) of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 degrees maximum in case of windshear).

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

No action is needed as recovery is automatic.

Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable

Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC 3.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 5000 fpm.

Plus or minus 7000 fpm.

Plus or minus 8000 fpm.

Plus or minus 6000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

Three main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, and low energy aural alert function.

Two main functions - Yaw function and flight envelope function.

Four main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, low energy aural alert function and windshear detection function.

Correct! Wrong!

If a failure is detected on any channel of FAC1, FAC2 takes over the corresponding channel.

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 6.9 degrees.

Plus or minus 4.9 degrees

Plus or minus 4 degrees.

Plus or minus 9.9 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

Alpha floor.

Pitch attitude.

VLS.

ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)

Correct! Wrong!

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer) failures.

2 IRS or ADC (Air Data Computer) failures.

1 ADC (Air data Computer) failure.

2 RA (Radio Altimeters) failures.

Correct! Wrong!

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

Yes, by setting a higher speed target.

No, because the A THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

The best combination of rate of climb and desired airspeed.

The desired airspeed.

The desired rate of climb.

The desired climb speed.

Correct! Wrong!

How can be defined a GA TRK?

It guides the aircraft along a TRK set in the FCU at go-around.

Entirely the same as TRK, although only displays on a go-around.

It guides the aircraft along a wind adjusted HDG for a given RWY TRK on go-around.

It guides the aircraft along the current track at go-around initiation.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

160 ft.

100 ft.

250 ft.

500 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

800 fpm.

600 fpm.

500 fpm.

1000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

Both statements are correct.

For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.

When one or more IRs are operating on aircraft battery power.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

100 ft.

250 ft.

500 ft.

160 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

Bearing only for VOR 1.

Correct! Wrong!

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

The THR setting in use, i.e. TOGA will equal TOGA thrust.

The thrust setting associated with the position of THR LVR.

Cost Index constraints.

MCT / TOGA.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

CLB.

OPN CLB.

VS.

ALT.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

+20 degrees and -15 degrees.

+25 degrees and -13 degrees.

+25 degrees and -17 degrees.

+28 degrees and -10 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

VLS will change with wing configuration change.

Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin.

All statements are correct.

With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase.

Correct! Wrong!

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function is active when the speed is managed and the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

25 degrees.

40 degrees.

33 degrees.

37 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

None of the baro references.

The standby altimeter only.

The PFD altimeters only.

The PFD and standby altimeters

Correct! Wrong!

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.

The respective ADIRU will become de-energized.

All statements are correct.

The OFF light will illuminate, and air data output will disconnect.

Correct! Wrong!

During the takeoff phase:

SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference.

SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.

SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

Correct! Wrong!

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

CLB thrust is commanded and the autothrust disconnects.

TOGA LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

THR LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

Both autopilot and autothrust disconnect.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

LEVER CLB appears on the PFD reminding the pilots of an incorrect THR LVR position.

ATHR Disconnects.

AP Disconnects.

ATHR demands IDLE Thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

TAKE OFF PERF page.

INIT A page.

PROG page.

FUEL PRED page.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

Altitude numbers turn amber.

Altitude box flashes.

Altitude numbers turn red.

Altitude box turns amber.

Correct! Wrong!

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

30 seconds.

45 seconds.

10 seconds.

60 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

Correct! Wrong!

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

When FLEX or TOGA is selected.

When the takeoff config switch is pressed.

As soon as the flight directors are engaged.

On first engine start.

Correct! Wrong!

A THR in white means that A THR is:

Armed.

Disconnected.

Active.

Correct! Wrong!

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI. ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 2 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 1 and ND 1.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

The SPEED target, as selected, is invalid or the flight crew did not enter any speed target in the PERF CLB page.

The speed target is not selected.

The SPEED target is selected and the flight crew did not enter a speed target in the PERF CLB page, or a speed-Mach target in the PERF DES page.

Correct! Wrong!

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

CAT 2 and CAT 1.

CAT 3 SINGLE and CAT2.

CAT 3 SINGLE, CAT2 and CAT1.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Both statements are correct.

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.

Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Correct! Wrong!

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

The active approach.

The runway of the selected approach in the MCDU.

Active Nav Aids.

HDG Indication.

Correct! Wrong!

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA (not in white).

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.

Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands

Correct! Wrong!

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

Yes.

No.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.

1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop

Correct! Wrong!

Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs: if FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD-

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

Below 1300AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Below 1300AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Correct! Wrong!

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

FMGC position and IR position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC 1 and 2 position difference exceeds limits.

Correct! Wrong!

If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), the flight crew should compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

Activate the IMM EXIT prompt.

Using the CLR EXIT prompt.

Activate the HOLD EXIT prompt.

Hold will automatically cancel overflying the fix.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

An AC power failure.

A DMC failure.

The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped out.

No power.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

It provides instructions to the flight director computers.

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+15 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+5 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+10 (2 engines) or V2+15 maximum (1 engine).

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the SRS guidance law. In SRS mode, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt in normal engine configuration. When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

NAV.

RWY.

NAV or TRK.

HDG.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

ATHR disconnects.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight along with any ATHR associated protections.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight.

Correct! Wrong!

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

TEMP.

MAG WIND.

QNH.

BARO.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

When a mode reversion occurs.

When a mode reversion occurs or alpha floor engages.

When a mode reversion occurs or loss of ILS data.

Alpha floor engages.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

Heading, altitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and altitude.

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Correct! Wrong!

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

VAPP+ 5 kt and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration.

VAPP+7 and its upper limit is VFE-5 of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-3 in CONF FULL.

VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.

Correct! Wrong!

Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

On the ground.

Below 30 ft RA.

On the ground, or below 30 ft RA.

On the ground and below 50 ft RA.

Correct! Wrong!

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

LOC and G/S Arm.

GS Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC and G/S Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC Arm.

Correct! Wrong!

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

180 ft AGL.

300 ft AGL.

200 ft AGL.

250 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Only when a LOC signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, AND initial climb. The RWY guidance law aims to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline during the takeoff run. When the aircraft is airborne, the RWY guidance law aims to maintain the sideslip indicator centered. To follow the guidance, the FD displays the conventional guidance bar.

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

ROSE NAV 80 NM.

ARC 80 NM.

ARC 160 NM.

The current display setting at the time of the failure.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

VLS.

V alpha MAX.

V alpha Prot.

VAPP.

Correct! Wrong!

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

7 seconds

10 seconds.

5 seconds.

Permanently.

Correct! Wrong!

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

In Normal law & Alternative laws only.

Always.

In Normal Law with operating autothrust.

In Normal Law and alternate laws where ATHR is operative.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

Aircraft will slow to the green dot speed.

LS automatically switches on should you be conducting an ILS approach.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug drops to Vapp.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug matches to the new target.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

At or above 100ft AGL and after 5 seconds.

At or above 150ft AGL.

At or above 240ft AGL.

At or above 400ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.

Correct! Wrong!

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

The thrust setting associated with the position of the thrust lever.

Flight plan constraints.

MCT - TOGA.

Cost Index constraints.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

45 degrees.

58 degrees.

67 degrees.

40 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

Autothrottle returns to an ARMED state, with TOGA FLEX shown in a whitebox.

ATHR disconnects.

AP disconnects.

TOGA FLEX then becomes the upper band of the ATHR speed range

Correct! Wrong!

In HDG TRK mode, a flight plan waypoint is sequenced if the waypoint is behind the aircraft and the aircraft is less than 7 NM from it, if the angle between the current aircraft track and the track of the leg is less than 90 degrees, and if the aircraft is flying a discontinuity towards a waypoint. This waypoint is sequenced when the aircraft is less than _____ from it.

5 NM.

2.5 NM.

7 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

The same conditions apply in NAV mode, except that no distance to the waypoint is taken into account.

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

Quiz

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

The autothrust is a function of the:

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

How can be defined a GA TRK?

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

During the takeoff phase:

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

A THR in white means that A THR is:

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?