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The AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) consists of:

Correct! Wrong!

The MCP provides control of the autopilot, flight director, altitude alert, and autothrottle systems. The MCP is used to select and activate AFDS modes, and establish altitudes, speeds, and climb/descent profiles.

When is ROLLOUT armed mode displayed?

Correct! Wrong!

It activates at touchdown with weight on the wheels

If an RA disagreement occurs and the lower of the RAs indicates less than _____, the autothrottle disconnects and the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC caution message shows.

Correct! Wrong!

AFDS flight mode annunciations are indicated above the PFD and HUD AFDS status annunciations from left to right. But in which order?

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Which MCP modes can be deselected by selecting another mode?

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All modes except G/S and G/P can be deselected by selecting another mode.

AFDS captures localizer when within range and within _____ of localizer course.

Correct! Wrong!

VNAV activates at _____ above field elevation and provides pitch commands to maintain the FMC computed airspeed/path

Correct! Wrong!

In flight, TOGA is armed when:

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Thrust levers can be manually positioned without disconnecting the autothrottle. After manual positioning, the autothrottle system repositions thrust levers to comply with the active mode. The autothrottle system will always reposition thrust levers after 7 seconds while in HOLD mode.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrottle system does NOT reposition thrust levers while in HOLD mode.

After lift-off, the AFDS commands a pitch attitude to maintain:

Correct! Wrong!

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Runway alignment is a submode of the approach mode. With crosswinds, the crab angle is reduced at touchdown. Runway alignment also compensates for a single engine approach.

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The autopilot controls the elevators, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers through the fly–by–wire flight control system. Autopilot rudder commands are:

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The autopilot controls nose wheel steering during rollout after an automatic landing.

When does LNAV activate?

Correct! Wrong!

In flight, selection causes immediate activation if within 2,5 NM of the active leg

Approaches flown with IAN procedures always use FMC computed glidepath (G/P) for vertical path guidance. Depending on the type of approach flown, lateral guidance can come from the FMC or localizer.

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A HUD TOGA takeoff based on an offset localizer course may provide guidance cues not aligned with the runway centerline but the information can be used.

Correct! Wrong!

A HUD TOGA takeoff based on an offset localizer course may provide guidance cues not aligned with the runway centerline and SHOULD NOT be used.

When does VNAV ALT display?

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FLARE (armed) – During autoland, FLARE displays _____

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Pilot MCP selections are sent to the autopilots. Autopilot commands are sent to the Primary Flight Computers (PFCs) to generate flight control surface commands.

Correct! Wrong!

Flight Envelope Protection - When engaged, the autopilot limits bank angle to _____, further assisting flight envelope protection.

Correct! Wrong!

Takeoff Go-around (TOGA) Switches - On the ground, pushing either switch above 80 knots:

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After localizer and glideslope capture, the localizer and glideslope modes can be deactivated by:

Correct! Wrong!

Flight Envelope Protection - In addition to primary flight control system protection, the autopilot and autothrottle systems prevent stall and overspeed. Overspeed protection is available:

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Automatic Flight (Go–Around) - When the flight director switches are off, pushing either TOGA switch will not display the flight director bars.

Correct! Wrong!

When the flight director switches are off, pushing either TO/GA switch displays the flight director bars.

Automatic Flight (Go–Around) - With the first push of either TOGA switch, autothrottle activates in thrust (THR) to establish a minimum climb rate of:

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LAND2 displayed above the PFD and HUD attitude display indicates that:

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LAND2 indicates that the aircraft is fail passive.

Autopilot Disconnect Switch - A second push on the switch resets:

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The autothrottle can be operated with flight directors OFF and the autopilot not engaged. When the autopilot is not engaged, but one or both flight directors are ON and the autothrottle is active, turning off both flight directors transitions the autothrottle to SPD.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrottle maintains the IAS/MACH window speed.

During a manual landing, when the active autothrottle mode is SPD, or the pitch mode is VNAV or FLCH SPD with the autothrottle active, thrust reduces to IDLE at _____

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"THR" Authrottle mode - What does it indicate?

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When only one autothrottle is connected and armed, the autothrottle mode annunciator is preceded with L or R.

Automatic Flight (Go–Around) - During landing, the TOGA switches are inhibited after touchdown or when:

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If the landing is discontinued, the TO/GA switches are enabled again above 5 feet radio altitude.

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FLARE (active) – During autoland, flare activates _____ radio altitude. FLARE deactivates at touchdown and smoothly lowers the nosewheel to the runway.

Correct! Wrong!

If an RA disagreement takes place during takeoff due to an anomaly or when dispatching with one radio altimeter inoperative, the autothrottle disconnects after takeoff at _____

Correct! Wrong!

Once the radio altimeter is above 1,500 feet, the autothrottle can be re-engaged and used normally